Basic Life Support Training for Healthcare Professionals in Tampa: A Comprehensive Guide
Basic Life Support (BLS) is a critical set of skills that every healthcare professional should possess. In emergency situations, BLS can mean the difference between life and death for patients. This article will provide an overview of BLS training, emphasizing its significance, and identifying those who should become certified in BLS. If you’re in Tampa and seeking to complete your BLS certification, CPR Tampa has you covered.
Basic Life Support refers to the immediate medical care provided to individuals experiencing life-threatening emergencies. It focuses on maintaining and restoring proper circulation, establishing an open airway, ensuring proper breathing, and restoring circulation. BLS techniques are designed to be straightforward and easy to learn, enabling healthcare professionals to administer timely assistance until advanced medical support arrives.
Healthcare professionals are often the first responders in emergency situations, and their knowledge and proficiency in BLS can make a substantial difference in patient outcomes. BLS training equips healthcare providers with the necessary skills and confidence to handle critical situations effectively, potentially saving lives.
Basic Life Support training is beneficial for a wide range of healthcare professionals, including doctors, nurses, emergency medical technicians (EMTs), paramedics, dentists, and pharmacists. Whether you work in a hospital, clinic, or any other healthcare setting, BLS training should be a priority to ensure you are prepared to handle emergencies effectively.
The CABs of Basic Life Support
Understanding the fundamental aspects of BLS is crucial for healthcare professionals. Let’s explore the three main components of BLS: Compressions, Airway, and Breathing.
Compressions: Compressions keep oxygenated blood moving throughout the body. In BLS, healthcare professionals learn techniques such as chest compressions and the proper use of automated external defibrillators (AEDs) to maintain and restore circulation.
Airway: The next step in BLS is to ensure an open airway. This involves assessing the patient’s airway, clearing any obstructions, and positioning them appropriately to maintain an unobstructed passage for breathing.
Breathing: The next focus is on assessing breathing patterns and providing rescue breaths if necessary. Healthcare professionals should be familiar with various techniques, such as mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, the use of barrier devices, or bag-mask devices to provide adequate ventilation.
An Automated External Defibrillator (AED) is a portable device used to analyze a person’s heart rhythm and deliver an electric shock, if required, to restore a normal heartbeat. AEDs are critical in cases of sudden cardiac arrest, as they can significantly increase the chances of survival.
Let’s take a closer look at the functions and significance of AEDs. Understanding their purpose is essential for healthcare professionals to effectively utilize these life-saving devices. Learning to operate an AED is an integral part of BLS training. The BLS course will provide hands-on instruction for applying pads, operating the device, and following the prompts provided by the AED. Simulations and practical exercises help healthcare professionals gain confidence in utilizing AEDs during emergencies.
Knowing when to use an AED is equally vital. BLS training covers the recognition of cardiac arrest symptoms and the appropriate steps to take in activating an AED. Understanding the proper timing for AED deployment can significantly increase the chances of a positive outcome for the patient.
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) is a core component of BLS training. CPR involves a combination of chest compressions and rescue breaths to maintain blood flow and oxygenation in individuals experiencing cardiac arrest or respiratory failure. Let’s explore the steps involved in performing CPR on different age groups.
How to perform CPR on an infant
When performing CPR on an infant, healthcare professionals should follow specific guidelines tailored to their size and needs. The course will cover techniques such as providing gentle chest compressions with two fingers, ensuring proper head positioning, and delivering delicate rescue breaths.
How to perform CPR on a child
CPR techniques for children are slightly different from those used for infants and adults. Healthcare professionals will learn to adapt their approach by providing chest compressions with the heel of one hand, ensuring an open airway, and delivering effective rescue breaths.
How to perform CPR on an adult
CPR for adults follows a similar approach to child CPR but with some modifications. The course will cover techniques such as providing chest compressions with the heel of both hands, positioning the patient correctly, and ensuring effective ventilation during rescue breaths.
Basic Life Support Skills
To reinforce the skills learned during BLS training, hands-on practice sessions are crucial. These practice sessions provide an opportunity for healthcare professionals to refine their techniques, build muscle memory, and gain confidence in their abilities. Here are some essential components of BLS skills practice:
- Hands-on practice of adult and pediatric CPR techniques: Participants will practice performing chest compressions, rescue breaths, and the proper ratio of compressions to breaths for both adults and pediatric patients.
- Demonstration and practice of AED use: Participants will receive instruction on AED operation and have the chance to practice using the device in simulated scenarios. This practical experience helps healthcare professionals become familiar with AED prompts and gain confidence in their ability to utilize this life-saving equipment.
- Simulation-based scenarios for team coordination and communication: BLS training often incorporates simulated scenarios that mimic real-life emergency situations. These scenarios encourage participants to work as a team, communicate effectively, and make critical decisions under pressure. This interactive approach enhances readiness and prepares healthcare professionals for the challenges they may face in the field.
Basic Life Support training is a vital component of healthcare professionals’ skill set, ensuring they can effectively respond to life-threatening emergencies. By prioritizing BLS training and honing these life-saving skills, healthcare professionals can enhance their ability to save lives and provide immediate care in critical situations.
Attention healthcare professionals in Tampa! Are you equipped with the vital skills needed to save lives in critical situations? Look no further than our comprehensive Basic Life Support (BLS) training program, tailored specifically for healthcare professionals like you. Our expert instructors will guide you through hands-on CPR Tampa sessions, empowering you with the knowledge and confidence to respond effectively in emergencies. Don’t miss this opportunity to enhance your skills and become a valuable asset to your patients and community. Register now for our BLS Tampa course and take the first step towards saving lives with confidence.
What is Chronic Kidney Disease by Samiya Tazeen
There are a few risk factors that might increase an individual’s risk of getting chronic kidney disease. Some of the factors are smoking, heart disease, obesity, cholesterol, family history of kidney disease, seniors, and being an African –American, Native American, or Asian- American. People that have chronic kidney disease have a higher risk of getting heart and blood vessel disease. Not many symptoms might appear or be severe until the kidney disease is chronic. But, some of the symptoms that might be noticeable are fatigue, trouble sleeping, swelling of feet and ankles, hypertension (high blood pressure), and itchiness. People that have chronic kidney disease can have many complications that could affect their body. Some of the complications might include fluid retention, rise in potassium levels which might decrease the function of your heart, heart disease, damage to central nervous system, increased risk of getting an infection, end-stage kidney disease, anemia (low blood count), and pericarditis (an inflammation of the pericardium).
Unfortunately, there is no cure for chronic kidney disease. The treatment for chronic kidney disease is to reduce complications, and slow the progress of the disease. Treatment for chronic kidney disease depends on the cause of the disease. Even if the cause is controlled, kidney disease might continue to progress and get worse. For example, if the sugar level of a person that has diabetes is controlled his/her kidney disease still might continue to worsen. Many of the medications that are given to people that have kidney disease are to reduce a complication. Some of the medications that are given to those suffering are medications that lower high blood pressure, medications that lower cholesterol levels, medications that increase your blood count/treat anemia, medications that reduce fluid retention (swelling of legs), and medications that protect your bones.
When a person completes kidney failure or are near a kidney failure, then they have end-stage kidney disease. At end-stage kidney disease, a person needs dialysis or a kidney transplant. Dialysis artificially removes waste products and fluids from the blood. There are two types of dialysis: hemodialysis, and peritoneal dialysis. In hemodialysis, a machine filters waste products and fluids from your blood. In peritoneal dialysis, the inside lining of the abdomen acts a filter and wastes are taken out by a solution. In a kidney transplant, a healthy kidney from a donor is placed into the patient’s body surgically. Kidneys can be transplanted from a deceased donor or a living donor. After the kidney is transplanted, the person needs to take medications for the rest of his/her life to keep the body from rejecting the kidney.
A person that has an increased risk of getting chronic kidney disease can determine if they have kidney disease from the following tests. Blood tests can determine the creatinine and urea in the blood, which determines the level of waste in the blood. The second test is a urine test. A urine test can help identify the causes of the kidney disease. Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is the best test to measure the level of kidney function. An ultra sound or CT scan can also help tell whether the kidneys are too small or large, and if a person has any kidney stones.
National Kidney Foundation
What is Macular Degeneration by Lilli Goldman
Imagine a hole in the center of your vision, one you can’t look over or under, to the left or to the right of. A central vision obstruction like this is one of the salient characteristics of Macular Degeneration, a common cause of vision loss for persons over age 50.
It results from damage to the macula–the center of the eye’s retina, which is needed for clear straight ahead vision. Millions of light sensors in these most sensitive areas of the retina at the back of the eye are needed to send electronic signals through the optic nurse to the brain, where images are translated into a navigable world.
The advance of the disease is slow in most cases, but can occur quickly. It can occur in one or both eyes, beginning with a blurred center of vision, a loss of overall brightness and a blank spot. The center field of vision is dark, distorted and blurry. When it occurs in just one eye, as is often the case, the other eye compensates so that the person may not be aware of a loss of vision. This is why routine eye exams are necessary, especially in individuals over age 50.
Macular Degeneration results in hampered vision, and not usually in complete blindness unless other complicating factors are in play. But even so, the results of Macular Degeneration can be life shattering. Reading, writing, cooking, recognition of faces, and any close work will be difficult to the point of impossible. A person’s daily activities will have to be wholly altered to adapt to the new visual limitations.
To avoid Macular Degeneration, older individuals should have routine eye exams and in addition should manage any other diseases. Smoking is harmful to the eyes, and is a known risk factor. It doubles the risk of Macular Degeneration. People should stay at a healthy weight to lessen their chances of Macular Degeneration. Further, they should exercise regularly, as we all should for many reasons. A nutritious diet featuring fruits, leafy green vegetables and fish should be adopted.
A study from the National Health Association (NHANES) and published in the Journal of American Geriatrics examined the effect of wine drinking on Macular Degeneration. The lowest risk seemed to be for persons drinking one glass of wine per month. Beer and liquor seemed to have no effect. The study has since been questioned (American Macular Degeneration Foundation, 1998).
Zeaxanthin, an ingredient found in corn, spinach, collards, orange juice, lettuce, oranges, tangerines, and peas (in that order of decreasing strengths) seems helpful. High doses of certain vitamins may also be helpful, as formulated by the National Eye care Institute (2005).
|Vitamin C||500 mg|
|Vitamin E||400 mg|
|Beta Carotene or lutein or Zeaxanthin||15 mg|
Other known risk factors include ethnicity: Caucasians have a higher rate than African American or Hispanics. A family history of Macular Degeneration is also a risk factor as genetics seem to predispose persons to the condition.
Lifestyle factors other than avoidance of smoking include a close monitor of blood pressure, an exercise regimen and a diet of fish and green, leafy vegetables.
Detection of Macular Degeneration begins with a visual acuity test which checks for distances in vision. A Dilated Exam follows in which drops for the back of the eye allow a view with the use of a magnifier. Amster Grid tests are used to show the extent of the loss, and Fluorescein angiograms look for leaks in the arteries of the eye, using a dye injected in the arm of a patient. Optical coherence tomography is also used, with light waves providing a painless detection test.
The eye care professions are looking for drusen, a yellow deposit that accompanies the aging process. Another sign is pigment changes under the retina. Dark clumps of released pigment are seen, which do not affect the eye color, but surround the retina from underneath.
In the early stages of Macular Degeneration, the drusen is the width of a hair and no vision loss is yet reported.
In the intermediate state large drusen is seen, with some vision loss.
In the late stages, geographic atrophy, or dry Macular Degeneration is having a gradual breakdown. With neovascular Macular Degeneration, or wet, the blood vessels under the retina are seen to leak fluid and blood. Swelling and damage to the eye is occurring.
The early stages show few symptoms, and not all Macular Degeneration will develop. If it is in one eye only, only 5% of persons will get advanced Macular Degeneration in 10 years. With both eyes affected, 14% will get advances stages in 10 years (National Eye care Institute, 2014).
Treatment is not required for early states. Lifestyle changes may help and be recommended. With Intermediate stages high dosage vitamins may be prescribed.
In advanced stages, injections of anti vascular endothelial growth factor may be done the multiple monthly injections. The eye is numbed and cleaned first. The injections are made and antibiotic drops are prescribed afterwards.
Photo dynamic therapy laser treatments may be used with a drug injected in the arm, to allow the laser to close vessels in the eye. This procedure is less common and mostly used in combination with other treatments.
Macular Degeneration strikes fear in patients and their loved ones. It is a diagnosis one never wants to hear, but it does not predict total blindness. It can be slow in advancing, compensated for, or treated. As with any unfavorable diagnosis, support groups can be helpful. Low vision adjustments such as reading glasses, magnifying glasses, and other accouterments can help persons find normalcy in the midst of visual limitations.
Mayo Clinic, “Dry macular degeneration,” http://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/macular-degeneration/basics/prevention/con-20075882 accessed May 3, 2015.
American Macular Degeneration Foundation, http://www.afb.org/directory/profile/american-macular-degeneration-foundation/12 accessed May 3, 1015.
How Do You Treat Tuberculosis by Ammara Semeen
Tuberculosis can also be caused by close contacts of a person with contagious TB disease. Persons who have emigrated from different parts of the world with high TB rates can also get infected. Children who are less than five years of age who had a positive TB test can also have chances of getting infected with TB again. Persons with weak immune system or people who had any of the diseases or conditions like HIV infection, Substance abuse, Low body weight, kidney diseases, organ transplants or Diabetes mellitus also have chances of getting Tuberculosis in their life.
The symptoms of Tuberculosis include coughing with blood, which can lasts 3 weeks or longer, pain in the chest, weight loss weakness, heavy fever, chills and sweating at night. Latent TB infection does not have any symptoms and they cannot spread TB bacteria. If you have a relative or a friend who has been exposed to TB then you should contact a doctor and get tested to make sure you didn’t get exposed to TB as well. There are two types of tests that are used to detect TB bacteria. Tuberculin skin test (TST), which is done by injecting a fluid, called as tuberculin. The fluid is injected in the lower part of the arm. The person who is given this test has to wait for 48 to 72 hours and then returns to get the arm checked. The doctor or health care worker will look at the hand and if the hand area is swelled then using a ruler it is measured. TB blood test also known as interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAS) measures how the immune system reacts to the TB bacteria by testing the person’s blood. A positive IGRA test means that the person has been infected with Tuberculosis and treatment for TB is needed. A negative IGRA test means the person’s blood did not reacted to the test and the person does not have TB disease.
Latent TB infection is treated by medications such as isoniazid (INH), rifampin (RIF), rifapentine (RPT). Taking medications for 6 to 9 months treats TB disease. The medications for TB disease include isoniazid (INH), rifampin (RIF), ethambutol (EMB), and pyrazinamide (PZA). If the person infected with TB stops taking the medicine too soon then they can become sick again and the TB may become active. Sometimes people can become resistance to the TB drugs, which means the medications used for treating TB can no longer kill the bacteria in the person. Drug Resistant to TB can occur if people do not take the medications regularly or if they do not take all of their drugs. If the qualities of the drugs are poor or if the health care provider prescribes the wrong medication with wrong dose or the length of time for taking the drugs in shortened then they the medications will not affect the person and it can’t kill the bacteria in the body. To prevent the spread of drug –resistant TB then the person should take all the medications exactly as prescribed. The treatment should not be stopped early as the TB bacteria are still present in the body and they can get infected with Tuberculosis again.
Discussion Section | Microbiology Unknown Report, Pseudomonas aeruginosa
How did the test results lead to the identification?
Different bacteria can live and flourish in certain environments, while others will die or never grow in the very same environment due to their dissimilar characteristics. These tests help determine which bacteria can grow in certain situations. For both bacteria, the Gram stain was a necessity in order to determine if the microbe was Gram Positive or Gram Negative. Once the Gram Positive bacteria was successfully visible under the microscope, it was clear that it was cocci. Knowing this information helped to cross two bacteria (both rods) off the unknown list. From there, the Mannitol test helped narrow down the choices even more. This particular Gram Positive microbe was able to ferment Mannitol and produce acid giving it a positive result. This positive result narrowed the choices down from three to two (S. aureus and E. faecalis). The only test that would allow for differentiation between these two bacteria was the Nitrate reduction test. This test came back negative, which meant this microbe could not reduce nitrate to nitrite or any other nitrogenous compounds. Only one Gram Positive bacteria given cannot reduce nitrate, which lead to its identification: E. faecalis.
The other Gram stained slide was viewed under the microscopes and pink/reddish rods were clearly visible making it the Gram negative bacteria. This Gram stain, however, did not eliminate any of the Gram Negative bacteria because they were all rods. The first test was the Simmons Citrate test. This test determines whether or not a microbe can use citrate as its sole carbon source. It was a positive result, meaning it could in fact use citrate as its only carbon source. This test narrowed down the choices from five to three bacteria (K. pneumoniae, E. aerogenes, and P. aeruginosa). The Urea test was then conducted. This test is used to identify bacteria capable of hydrolyzing urea using the enzyme urease. The test came back negative, which helped to eliminate K. pneumoniae, since that particular bacteria produces urease. Casein was the last test used in order to identify the Gram Negative bacteria. After incubation, there was a clearing in the milk agar, which proved that this bacteria could hydrolyze the milk protein casein using the enzyme casease. The only bacteria that was able to do that was P. aeruginosa.
Was it the correct identification?
After showing the professor the results that lead to the identification of these bacteria (E. faecalis and P. aeruginosa), it was confirmed the correct microbes were found.
What problems were encountered?
The only problem that was encountered was during the original streak plate. After two days of incubation, it was hard to isolate two different bacteria into two separate nutrient agar plates due to overgrowth. In order to avoid contamination or future problems, another streak plate was done and more carefully. After the second try, two separate bacteria were growing and it was possible to successfully isolate them both.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa wasn’t successfully isolated until 1882. In a publication entitled when “On the Blue and Green Coloration of Bandages”, Carle Gessard reported the growth of the organism from cutaneous wounds of two patients with bluish-green pus (3). P. aeruginosa is a gram negative, rod shaped bacteria. It is a strictly aerobic microbe, which means it needs oxygen to grow and survive. It is noted for its ability to live in versatile environments, cause nosocomial infections in susceptible individuals and it’s resistance against antibiotics.
P. aeruginosa is an important microbe to be aware of because it has an ability to survive with minimal nutrients and can tolerate a variety of physical conditions. This allows P. aeruginosa to be prevalent in both hospital settings, as well as, in our overall community. While in the hospital, P. aeruginosa can be found on a variety of equipment. Such equipment includes: respiratory machines, antiseptics, soaps, mops, etc. (3). While out in the community, P. aeruginosa can be found in swimming pools, hot tubs, humidifiers, and even vegetables. While P. aeruginosa is still prevalent in our community, it is in hospitals that this bacteria can cause major infection. It is considered an opportunistic pathogen, which means it usually does not pose a problem, however, it can become pathogenic. When a person enters a hospital, it is normal for their immune system to be compromised. When an individual becomes immunocompromised their ability to fight off an opportunistic pathogen like P. aeruginosa becomes more difficult.
While P. aeruginosa normally does not cause illness in a healthy person, it can cause major problems for an individual in the hospital with a compromised immune system. It is the most common pathogen isolated from patients who have been hospitalized longer than 1 week (4). Some common nosocomial infections caused by P. aeruginosa include: pneumonia, urinary tract infections, blood stream infections, as well as, infection of surgical sites. Nosocomial P. aeruginosa infections can be dangerous because the individual is already under either physical or mental stress (or both), but another frightening fact is that P. aeruginosa is resistant to many antibiotics.
P. aeruginosa can develop resistance to antibiotics, either through the acquisition of resistance genes on mobile genetic elements (i.e., plasmids) or through mutational processes that alter the expression and/or function of chromosomally encoded mechanisms. (3) While these drug resistant abilities are positive aspects for P. aeruginosa, it is very dangerous for individuals fighting infection. The drug resistance makes treating this pathogen even more difficult and vastly limits avenues in which doctors can take to help treat patients with this infection. The question then becomes, if there is an overuse of the antibiotics that do work, will P. aeruginosa become resistant to those too?
(1) McDonald, Virginia (et al.). Lab Manuel for General Microbiology. Saint Louis Community College
at Meramec. 2011
(2) Lab Review for Practical Microbiology.
(3) Lister, Philip D. (et al). “Antibacterial-Resistant Pseudomonas aeruginosa: Clinical Impact and
Complex Regulation of Chromosomally Encoded Resistance Mechanisms.”
www.ncbi.nlm.gov/pmc/articles. American Society of Microbiology. 2009. April 28, 2015.
(4) Lessnau, Dieter-Klaus, MD. “Pseudomonas aeruginosa Infections.”
www.emedicine.medscape.com/article/226748. WebMD LLC. 2014. April 28, 2015.
What is Aortic Valve Stenosis by Madison Baysinger
Aortic valve stenosis (also called aortic stenosis or AS) is a condition where the heart’s aortic value has narrowed. This narrowing causes blood flowing from the left ventricle to the aorta and arteries to be impeded. It is estimated that up to 1.5 million people in the United States- with 500,000 of those being severe cases of AS. Aortic stenosis in some cases can lead to heart failure and sudden death.
There are three known causes of AS- progressive congenital wear and tear of a bicuspid valve, deterioration of the aortic valve in elderly people, and scarring of the aortic valve caused by rheumatic fever as a young adult or child. A bicuspid valve is the most common cause of AS. Because there is only two cusps instead of the usual three they cannot open as widely and blood flow is less controlled, the lack of control leads to more wear and tear on the leaflets. The increased wear and tear leads to scarring, lessened mobility, and calcification of the valve leaflets. In patients over age 65, protein collagen in the leaflets is lost and calcium deposits on them, this is called “senile calcific aortic stenosis.” When the mobility of the leaflets is decreased by calcium it causes thickening and scarring occurs, leading to AS. Unlike other heart conditions related to calcium deposits, this isn’t increased by unhealthy lifestyle choices. The third cause of aortic stenosis is damage from rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever, caused by streptococcal bacteria, damages the valve leaflets themselves by making the edges of the leaflets fuse together. Rheumatic aortic stenosis is uncommon in the United States.
Common symptoms of aortic stenosis are chest pain, breathlessness, fainting, and palpitations. In rare cases the first and only symptom is sudden death. One-third of patients experience chest pain first, and over 50 percent report it as the condition progresses. This chest pain is caused by the higher pressure needed to pump blood through the damaged aortic valve and oxygen demand of the thickened muscle. During excitement and exercise, fainting can be a symptom of AS because of vasodilation leading to lowered blood pressure. With the damaged aortic valve the heart has trouble keeping up with the blood pressure drop, leading the patient to faint. It is believed that after the onset of chest pain and fainting life expectancy is less than three years without treatment. Shortness of breath due to heart failure is thought to be the most worrying sign of aortic stenosis. During the beginning of the condition it only happens during high levels of activity and decreases when resting. In later stages of aortic valve stenosis shortness of breath can even happen during rest, especially when lying flat. Life expectancy is only 6 to 24 months after this sets in.
Aortic valve stenosis is diagnosed and evaluated in four ways. An electrocardiogram can show odd arrangement of the heart’s electrical activity, which may reveal thickened muscle of the heart and lead to a diagnosis. An echocardiography obtains images of heart chambers and valves, showing the damaged valve. Thirdly, using a chest x-ray shows a dilated aortic valve. The most reputable method of diagnosing AS is cardiac catheterization. This measures the pressure on both sides of the valve and that can be used to determine valve area.
Treatment of aortic stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. In cases where the patient experiences little to no symptoms, a doctor will only monitor because surgery would be riskier than the condition itself. In mild cases, or with patients who aren’t able to receive surgery, balloon valvuloplasty can temporarily relieve AS. If severe AS is found, aortic valve replacement, either mechanical or bio-prostheses (from pigs or cows) is the usual treatment.
As with many diseases, the most important thing for patients with aortic valve stenosis is careful monitoring. Many people with this condition can live to fulfilling lives. Research continues to improve lives of the people diagnosed with this disease and increase life expectancy of patients.
http://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/aortic-stenosis/basics/definition/con-20026329 (Mayo Clinic)
http://www.medicinenet.com/aortic_stenosis/page4.htm (Medicine Net)
http://www.heart.org/HEARTORG/Conditions/More/HeartValveProblemsandDisease/Problem-Aortic-Valve-Stenosis_UCM_450437_Article.jsp (American Heart Association)
Identifying Staphylococcus aureus | Microbiology Unknown Lab
UNKNOWN LAB REPORT
Unknown Number 120, Alternate 3
May 5, 2015
Professor Jay Snaric
Introduction to Microbiology
Although naked to the eye, microorganisms play a key role in the lives of every human being. In the health field, while microorganisms are responsible for causing diseases, they are also actively involved in the making of antibiotics. Without identifying the microorganisms that caused the disease, it would be impossible to isolate an antibiotic that would successfully treat the patient. Similarly, in the food business, microorganisms are involved in managing food safety and maintaining a high quality of food. In this scenario, it is vital that the correct bacteria are identified and used when cooking and keeping supplies and utensils free of harmful microorganisms. This study involves utilizing all of the methods and procedures covered in the microbiology laboratory class in order to learn the process of correctly identifying the two unknown bacteria.
MATERIALS AND METHODS
At the beginning, a test tube labeled 120 was handed out by the lab instructor. In order to isolate the two unknown bacteria from the single test tube, an isolation streak plate needed to be performed. This procedure, as outlined in the lab manual written by McDonald et al., carefully pulls bacteria along the four sides of a nutrient agar plate to try to clearly isolate the two microbes (10). After forty-eight hours of incubation at thirty-seven degrees Celsius, it appeared as if only one type of bacterium grew on the streak plate. Although only one bacterium had grown, it was in the best interest of the study to keep working, and then return to the other bacterium once it had been determined whether it was gram positive or gram negative. Moving forward, another isolation streak plate was performed using just the one bacterium that appeared on the original streak plate. Once incubated, the nutrient agar came back pure, thus allowing a procedure called a gram stain to be performed. Described in the lab manual by McDonald et al., the gram stain was performed using the microbes from the inoculated agar plate and came back as gram positive cocci (67). Then, a urea test and a nitrate test were both performed on the gram positive cocci. The urea test requires urea broth tubes, while the nitrate test requires nitrate broth tubes, nitrate reagent A, nitrate reagent B, and powdered zinc. Both tests are further outlined in the laboratory manual (McDonald et al. 36). Once these tests were completed, the identity of the unknown bacterium was revealed.
Gram Positive Methods
|Gram Stain||To differentiate bacterial cells based on their cell wall||Crystal violet, Iodine, Alcohol, Safranin||Purple balls||Gram Positive cocci|
|Urea Test||To determine if bacteria had made urease, thus broke down urea||None||Urea broth remained tan color (unchanged)||Negative Result|
|Nitrate Test||Tests for the reduction of nitrate||Nitrate Reagent A, Nitrate Reagent B, Powdered zinc||Add reagents, No color change, added zinc, no color change||Positive Result|
When isolating the bacteria at the very beginning on the isolation streak plates, only the gram positive bacterium was visible. At this point in the study, the gram negative bacteria were needed to grow, so EMB agar and MacConkey agar were chosen to be inoculated. These specific agars were chosen because they inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria and select for the growth of gram negative bacteria. After incubation, there were visible purple spots on the EMB agar so a gram stain was performed with those microbes and gram negative and gram positive bacteria appeared. Due to this, the lab instructor handed out an alternate number three. Using the alternate number three, a nutrient agar plate was streaked, incubated, and then gram stained. The gram stain confirmed that alternate number three was gram negative rods. Then, a urea test, a sulfur reduction test, and an indole test were performed. The urea test requires urea broth tubes, the sulfur reduction test requires a SIM tube, and an indole test requires a SIM tube and indole reagent. All three of these tests are described in the laboratory manual (McDonald et al. 19,36). The results of these tests confirmed the identity of the second unknown bacterium.
Gram Negative Methods
|Gram Stain||To differentiate bacterial cells based on their cell wall||Crystal violet, Iodine, Alcohol, Safranin||Pink rods||Gram negative Rods|
|Urea Test||To determine if bacteria had made urease, thus broke down urea||None||Urea broth turned bright pink||Positive result|
|H2S Test||To determine if sulfur had been reduced||None||Tube had a black clump||Positive result|
|Indole Test||To determine if indole had been produced||Indole reagent||Top of test tube appeared red||Positive result|
Starting with the first unknown, a gram stain, urea test, and nitrate test were performed. The gram stain revealed that the unknown was a gram positive cocci bacterium. In addition, the urea test was negative and the nitrate test was positive. The second unknown was a gram negative rod and that bacterium had three separate tests performed. Specifically, the urea test was positive, the H2S test was positive, and the indole test was positive. In conclusion, the gram positive bacterium was Staphylococcus aureus, and the gram negative bacterium was Proteus vulgaris.
Biochemical Tests – Gram Positive
|Gram Stain||Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin||23OC(room temp)||Purple balls||Gram positive cocci||Organism has cell walls made of thick peptidoglycan|
|Urea||Urea broth||37OC||Urea broth remained tan colored (unchanged)||Negative result||Bacteria do not produce urease, so urea is not broken down|
|Nitrate||Nitrate broth, nitrate reagent A, nitrate reagent B, powdered zinc||37OC||Add reagents, no color change, added zinc, no color change||Positive result||Nitrate has been fully reduced|
Biochemical Tests – Gram Negative
|Gram stain||Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin||23OC(room temp)||Pink rods||Gram negative rods||Organism has a thinner layer of peptidoglycan and an outer lipid membrane|
|Urea||Urea broth||37OC||Urea broth turned bright pink||Positive result||Urea is broken down by urease|
|H2S||SIM tube||37OC||Black clump appeared in tube||Positive result||Organism produces hydrogen sulfide|
|Indole||SIM tube, indole reagent||37OC||Top of test tube appeared red||Positive result||Organism produces indole and is a bi-product of amino acid metabolism|
FLOW CHART – Removed due to formatting issues.
Through multiple tests and procedures, the identity of both unknowns were determined. Once the gram stain revealed that the gram positive bacterium was cocci, the bacteria Bacillus cereus and Bacillus subtillis could be excluded because they are rod shaped. The first test performed for the gram positive bacteria was the urea test. This test yielded negative results and thus eliminated Staphylococcus epidermidis. Then, the nitrate test confirmed that Enterococcus faecalis was not the unknown, and rather Staphylococcus aureus was.
When the urea test was performed on the gram negative bacteria, the results were positive, which eliminated the bacteria Escherichia coli, Enterobacter aerogenes, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Next, the sulfur reduction test determined that the unknown is not Klebsiella pneumoniae, leaving only one option, which is Proteus vulgaris. The indole test also confirms that the unknown bacterium is Proteus vulgaris.
All of these tests executed led to the correct identities of both unknowns. The only problem that was encountered throughout the process, was when the gram stain was performed using the bacteria from the EMB agar and both gram negative and gram positive bacteria grew. Using the EMB agar, only gram negative bacteria was supposed to grow, but because both types of bacteria grew, an alternate bacteria was given by the instructor.
Staphylococcus aureus is a gram positive, facultative anaerobic bacteria. It is normally found in the nose and on the skin of 25%-30% of healthy adults and 25% of people in the hospital [“Staph Infection (Staphylococcus aureus)”]. Usually, this bacteria is not harmful when it is outside the body; however, once the bacteria enters the body, disease and infection follows. While skin infections are most commonly caused by S. aureus, this bacteria can also cause pneumonia, food poisoning, toxic shock syndrome, and blood poisoning (“Staphylococcal”). Some symptoms and signs of a localized staph infection include pus, tenderness, pain, redness, swelling, and drainage. In specific cases, staph infections are contagious until they are resolved. Infections could be spread through personal hygiene items like razors and bandages. Certain people, such as newborns, breastfeeding women, and people with chronic conditions such as diabetes, cancer, vascular disease, lung disease, and weakened immune system, are at a greater risk of infection. Depending on the type of staph infection, there are different modes of treatment. Minor skin infections may be treated with antibiotic ointment, while other staph infections may be treated with oral, or IV antibiotics [“Staph Infection (Staphylococcus aureus)”].
Staphylococcus aureus can also cause food poisoning if food is not refrigerated properly or if someone accidently contaminates the food. The incubation period is one to six hours and the symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, loss of appetite, severe abdominal cramps, and fever. Typically, the food poisoning lasts twenty-four to fourty-eight hours. Steps such as washing hands before handling food, keeping kitchens and serving areas sanitized, and avoiding handling food if you have an infection or cut can be taken to prevent food poisoning (United).
Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (also known as MRSA) is a strain of bacteria that is resistant to antibiotics that are usually used to treat staph infections. There are two main forms, one that is health-care associated, and one that is community associated. MRSA is more difficult to treat than typical staph infections and can affect the bloodstream, lungs, heart, bones, and joints [“Staph Infection (Staphylococcus aureus)”].
There are several ways to reduce one’s risk of developing a staph infection. First and foremost, washing hands with soap and water helps defend against germs and Staphylococcus aureus. Also, one should keep wounds covered and avoid sharing personal items such as razors and towels. For women, it is important to change tampons frequently because S. aureus can cause toxic shock syndrome if tampons are left in for extended periods of time. Lastly, one should wash clothing and sheets in hot water to remove all bacteria (“Staph Infections” Mayo). Staphylococcus aureus is all around us, but with proper knowledge and awareness, disease and infection can be avoided.
McDonald, Virginia, Mary Thoele, Bill Salsgiver, and Susie Gero. Lab Manual for General Microbiology. Saint Louis:STLCC-Meramec, 2011. Print.
“Staph Infection (Staphylococcus Aureus).” Medicinenet.com. Medicinenet, Inc, 4 Mar. 2015. Web. 29 Apr. 2015.
“Staph Infections.” Mayo Clinic. Mayo Foundation, 11 June 2014. Web. 29 Apr. 2015.
“Staphylococcal Infections.” MedlinePlus. U.S. National Library of Medicine, 2 Oct. 2014. Web. 29 Apr. 2015.
United States. U.S. Dept. of Health and Human Services. “Staphylococcus.” Foodsafety.gov. n.d. Web. 30 Apr. 2015.
Bacillus cereus vs. Bacillus subtilis | Microbiology Unknown Lab Report
Unknown Lab Report
Identifying a specific bacterium from a wide variety of bacteria is important in trying to help a sick patient take the correct preventative measures needed. It is essential in knowing the right bacteria causing the problem, so that the person can be treated in the correct way and the correct antibiotics are administered. In this particular study an unknown was given by the professor. The procedures taken to figure out, and isolate the two separate bacteria were taught thus far in Microbiology lab class. Doing specific tests on the two bacteria’s will give you the ultimate answer at the end as to what the bacteria is, so correct measures can be taken. Once the correct identity of the bacteria is know, more information on the specific bacteria can take place.
Materials and Methods
Mr. Snaric gave each student a specific unknown labeled with different numbers on them that contained both specimen. Unknown labeled 104 was given to me in lab by the instructor. Numbers of different methods were used to identify the specific bacteria given. The procedures following the various different methods can be found in our lab manual.
The first procedure that took place was to take the mixed culture of bacteria, and do a streak plate. The streak plate is done on a nutrient agar plate to try and isolate a pure culture of each unknown. (pg.10 Lab Manual) Alternate number 4 and 6 were given by the professor due to overgrowth on the original streak plate. Separate streak plates are done on the nutrient agar using the quadrant streak method. This would get the bacteria to grow as isolated pure colonies in order to run tests on them.
Once growth appeared for my alternates it was then time to figure out which alternate number was gram negative, and which was gram positive. In order to figure this out you have to do a Gram stain. This is where a small scrap of each sample of bacteria, is placed on the slide using all the specific dyes. The dyes used in order are Gram Crystal Violet, Gram Iodine, Gram Decolorizer, and Gram Safarin. The exact procedure followed is in the lab manual. (pg.67 Lab Manual) Once this is done the microscope is used to identify the color and shape, which will tell whether the bacteria is gram positive or negative.
Each bacterium is now isolated and alternate number 4 is gram negative, and other tests are now needed to identify the exact bacteria. The next procedure performed on alternate 4 was the Simmons Citrate. A citrate agar slant is inoculated with the bacteria on the surface of the test tube. Once that is done it is inoculated, and the results are checked the next day. This is used to determine if the bacteria that produce the enzyme citrase breakdown citrate. (pg.36 Lab Manual) The next procedure performed on alternate 4 was the Urea test. For this urea tubes are used that contain a broth known as urea. The citrate agar slants is inoculated, and then incubate it. If the ph indictor turns a bright magenta color then it indicates the breakdown of urea by the particular bacteria. (pg.38 Lab Manual) The last procedure was the indole and Hydrogen Sulfide test. This was done with the Sim tube that is a liquid medium. The Sim tube is inoculated, and then incubated. The “I” in Sim stands for indole. To test for indole you add Kovac’s reactant as stated in the lab procedure. This reactant brings indole to the top of the test tube. (pg.36 Lab Manual) The “S” in Sim stands for sulfur reduction. The Sim tube is inoculated, and then incubated to find the results a day later. These tests gave the answer to which bacteria alternate number 4 was.
The other alternate given was number 8. From doing the Gram stain it was found that is it positive, and is rod shaped. For the gram stain you follow the procedures in the lab manual , and then look at the results under the microscope.(pg.67 Lab Manual) Knowing that it gave two options of bacteria to go with, and run tests on. The first procedure was the Casein, and a milk agar was used for this. It is to be inoculate with the bacteria, and then incubated. Clearing around the inoculated area was to be observed, as stated in the lab manual. (pg.28 Lab Manual) The next procedure was Methyl Red which the MR-VP test tubes are used. It is a broth based test tube that essential is used to test whether or not glucose is fermented. (pg.34 Lab Manual) These were the only procedures done for this because I had it narrowed down to two from the beginning, so not as many test needed to be run. This gave the answer to alternative number 8.
All the following tests were performed on Alternate 4:
- Simmons Citrate
- Hydrogen Sulfide
All the following tests were performed on Alternate 8:
- Methyl red
Simmion Citrate test- Purpose: Is the ammonium phosphate in the test tube broken down? – If so then it produces a blue color on the surface, otherwise if not it stays its normal green color.
Urea test- Purpose: Does the enzyme urease break down urea? If so then the broth turns magenta pink, otherwise it stays the same color it normally is.
Indole test- Purpose: Does the enzyme trytophanase degrade the amino acid tryptophan into indole? If so then when the Kovac’s Reagent is added it will bring the indole to the surface of the test tube producing a red color making the result positive, otherwise no red color is produced.
Hydrogen Sulfide test- Purpose: Does the hydrogen sulfide react with ferrous sulfate to produce a black precipitate? If black is produced in the tube then the test would be positive, otherwise if not then a negative result.
Casein test- Purpose: Does the bacteria produce the enzyme casease which hydrolyzes the milk protein casein? If so and there is clearing around the bacteria then it indicates a positive result, otherwise would be negative.
Methyl Red- Purpose: Is a mixture of acids produced as a result of glucose fermentation? If so the broth will turn red indicating a positive result, otherwise it will be a negative result.
The only problem encountered was in the beginning when given the initial number 104. When a streak plate was done on 104 to try and isolate the two different bacteria’s there was always overgrowth. They were never able to isolate on their own, so two different alternate numbers were given by the professor.
Alternate number 4 from doing a Gram stain was figured out to be gram negative rods. First the Simmons Citrate test was performed it did not turn blue on the surface, so I knew the results were negative. The citrate test tube stayed it’s normal green color. Next was the Urea test, which came back negative because it didn’t turn the bright magenta color. The urea stayed the color it normally is in the test tube. With those two tests being done it narrowed it down to two options, which were Proteus vulgaris and Escherichia Coli. Next were the Hydrogen sulfide and indole test. The indole test gave me a positive result because the surface of the test tube turned red. The Hydrogen sulfide test on the other hand was negative because it didn’t turn the test tube a black color. Proteus vulgaris would be positive for both urea and hydrogen sulfide. Leaving to believe that alternate number 4 gram negative rod is E.coli.
Alternate number 8 when a Gram stain was done came out to be gram positive rod. That being known it only left two options Bacillus cereus or Bacillus subtilis. The first test was the Casein , which came out to be a positive result because there was clearing around the bacteria. Next was the Methyl Red test this also gave a positive result showing that it does produce a mixture of acids as a result of glucose fermentation, which turns the broth a red color. This concluded that alternate number 8 gram positive rod is Bacillus cereus because both these tests were positive. If both the test were negative then it would have been Bacillus subtilis.
Background Information on Alternate number 8
Bacillus cereus is a large gram positive, rod shaped bacteria that produce toxins and is capable of producing endospores. “B. cereus is mesophilic, growing optimally at temperatures between 20°C and 40°C, and is capable of adapting to a wide range of environmental conditions”, as stated in Bacillus cereus article. There are two illnesses that this particular bacterium can cause. “The first illness gives you diarrhea, whereas the second one gives you vomiting on top of diarrhea”, as stated in Bacillus cereus. The duration of this illness can last up to 24 hours at the most. As in most illness you are to get rest and drink lots of fluids, just like it is essential to do with this illness. This bacterium is found in many foods especially certain foods that sit out for long periods of time at room temperature. Their main habitat is soil. “Many sources of outbreak for B. cereus is said to be rice, meat loaf, turkey loaf, and many vegetables.” (Bacillus Species)
Sex Hormones and Multiple Sclerosis Link by Kelcey Rankin
Unless someone you know well or love has Multiple Sclerosis, it is probably safe to assume your knowledge is limited to a few facts. Multiple Sclerosis, or it’s common acronym MS, is a chronic, progressively debilitating, incurable disease. MS occurs when the immune system attacks the myelin, a sheath or covering that protects nerve fibers. The nerves in the spinal cord, brain, and optic nerve are damaged by this disease, which then leads to scaring, also know as sclerosis. The nerves begin to work improperly causing numbness and tingling. Other symptoms include muscle weakness, feeling fatigued, trouble walking, and chronic pain.
When my sister was diagnosed with MS, her symptoms where unusual. Her vision became blurry and colors, especially blue and red looked dull and faded. She was diagnosed with Optic Neuropathy, which can indicate an onset of Multiple Sclerosis. However, Optic Neuropathy can be caused by other illnesses too, so at first we weren’t thinking she had MS. Her doctor ordered an MRI and it revealed that she had multiple lesions on her brain, which were affecting her optic nerve. Lesions are inflammations of brain tissue and they show up on a MRI.
My sister has decided to manage her MS strictly through diet and a healthy lifestyle. There have been extensive studies done which indicate that the consumption of certain nonsaturtated fats and unprocessed foods can slow down the progression of MS. So far, her MS has been managed entirely by it. My sister does not eat sugar, meat, dairy, or anything processed. The success from this diet has put her symptoms on the back burner.
MS can be hard to diagnose because it could just as easily a pinched nerve, vitamin deficiency, lupus, or stress-related disorders. Unfortunately, there is not a fool-proof test to determine the presence of MS. As many as 10% of the people diagnosed with MS don’t actually have it. To be sure you should consult a neurologist or an MS specialist.
My sister is not the other person in my family who has MS. My first cousin Sarah was diagnosed at age 26. She has more lesions more frequently. She has had two kids since finding out. Sarah went into remission while pregnant both times. In some instances when woman have babies they stay in remission indefinitely. Unfornatly Sarah relapsed after both babies.
Correlation between sex hormones and magnetic resonance imaging lesions is not being studied. The objective is to determine if sex hormones play a role in the pathogenesis in MS. They have put serum estradiol and progesterone in patients right before their menstrual cycle. The result shows that patients with high estradiol and low progesterone levels had a significantly greater number of lesions than those with low levels of both of these hormones. Patients with high estrogen and progesterone levels had significantly low number of lesions on their MRI. The conclusion is that estradiol and progesterone may influence disease activity in MS. If further studies confirm these results, it may be possible to develop therapy by altering levels in hormones.
There are many helpful treatments to help manage MS, such as Corticosteroids, ACTH(adrenocorticotropic hormone), intravenous immunoglobulin, plasma exchange. My cousin takes the first one, which is basically a steroid. There are many other drugs that help with MS but these are the ones that cause less side affects and help you to feel better faster. Researchers are working hard to find a cure, and many believe it is not far off.
In conclusion, MS used to be a depressing, sad disease that caused crippling muscle degeneraton. Now there are good treatment options that slow and in some cases reverse the affects of the disease. As I said before my sister manages hers just with diet and my cousin takes medication. We hope for a cure soon so my family and others do not have to suffer anymore. MS is strong, but we are STRONGER. Lets find a cure!
Pregnancy and remission with MS, http://ms.about.com/od/livingwellwithms/tp/ms_pregnancy.htm
Diagnosing MS, Signs and symptoms http://www.webmd.com/multiple-sclerosis/guide/multiple-sclerosis-diagnosing
Medications for MS http://www.webmd.com/multiple-sclerosis/tc/multiple-sclerosis-ms-medications
Hormones affect MS, ncbi.nlm.nih.gov
Changing your diet for MS, www.overcomingms.org